Yes. The substantive standard still need apply. To think that voting "irregularities" based on some protected factor, be it race, religion, gender, etc, do not exist in this country is silly. There should be wider observation/evaluation of locations and factors. I side with the arguments that the specific coverage formula rather than that the substantive standard need not apply.
Originally Posted by rapier7
Do you guys think we still need that part of the Voting Rights Act?
"The existence of life is a highly overrated phenomenon."
-- Dr Manhattan
quis custodiet ipsos custodes
Last edited by rdsesq; 03-03-2013 at 11:42 AM.